Eccentric topic of the week: Neurology
Question 24:
A 34-year-old man is
referred by his primary care physician as a difficult-to-manage case of
headaches. The patient says that he has had migraine headaches for 4 years. The
attacks are increasing in frequency and becoming less responsive to therapy.
His family history is negative for migraine and he does not do drugs. He drinks
occasionally but denies being a heavy drinker. He is married with 3 children
and lives in a two-story house. This is the patient's T1-weighted magnetic resonance
image of the brain:
What is the cause of these migraine headaches?
A. Herpes simplex encephalitis
B. Temporal lobe oligodendroglioma
C. Cerebral arteriovenous malformation
D. Idiopathic
E. Cluster headache
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